Now I've gone through and broken up the original "first chapter" posted, in hoping to try and find reasonable chunks of information that at least (hopefully) are related.

So my apologies to those who read the entire first chapter that these next two are a break down of that first chapter. The 4th chapter here will start the next set of references.

Dispensation?

Colossians 1:25-29 - First off, let's define what the word "dispensation" means in this passage. This word is the feminine version of two other Greek words put together which literally mean "house steward". So "dispensation" in this passage has nothing to do with time. There is no context of this Greek word to indicate that it is in any way related to time. It's not dispensation #1, #2, #3 etc.

Paul is describing himself as the female steward of a house. Who does the house belong to? (God - he says that right here in this passage.)

"… which is given to me toward you, to fulfill the word of God…."

Paul is describing himself here as one who's appointed by God to the stewardship of the household of God.

Now the next verse, Paul expounds upon what, or rather how he is the steward. He is appointed to minister unto them of what has been given to him; meaning the revelation of the mystery that had been hid from "the age" and from "the generation". (Neither "age" or "generation" is in the plural in the Greek. They are both "article and noun".)

Who is "the age" and "the generation"? This is a reference to all who'd received revelation from God (either via directly, or in the writing of the Old Testament) from the beginning of time to the birth of Christ. Note, it's one age and one generation.

"…but NOW is made manifest to his saints…" Again note; it's no longer hidden. But also note; it's not just made manifest to the saints who've come along from the point of Jesus's first coming to judgement day; but also of the saints who died prior to Christ's first coming. How do we know that? We know that from Mathew 24 and the book of Revelation. I'll explain this later.

Now the second half of verse 27 tells us what that mystery is: "…this mystery among the gentiles; which is Christ in you the hope of glory." Now how is "Christ in you the hope of glory" revealed. That again hearkens back to Pentecost because the indwelling of the Holy Spirit was what was promised to cleave the believer to Christ.

1 Timothy 1:15-16 - Paul restates a doctrinal truth. (Jesus came to save sinners; of whom I'm chief.) Then goes on to explain that by the example made of Paul, that Jesus shows forth Jesus's ability to be long suffering. And this is done so that those who would believe unto everlasting life can see the pattern of long-suffering God exhibits.

Now it doesn't appear to me that this passage is addressing Jews coming to believe particularly; since the passage never says that. Paul though refers to himself as "one born out of due time", wherewith we would use the term "miscarriage". He "came out dead" and was "resurrected" "after the fact". Paul became a believer post Pentecost. He describes himself as a blasphemer and persecutor having obtained mercy. The implication seeming to be - If God can have mercy on me, He can have mercy on anyone. And so therefore I am that example, as one "..of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews…" one of my own nation, dead in my trespass and sin as a persecutor of Christ.

1 Timothy 2 - Now from verses just looked at; Paul goes on to talk about praying for those in civil authority. This is good in the sight of God (because) "…who will all men to be saved and come to knowledge of the truth." That truth being "For there is one God and one mediator between God and men; the man Jesus, who gave himself a ransom for all to be testified in due time…"

Right here Paul is eluding to the fact that Jesus isn't just the Messiah for the Jews. He is the one mediator between God and men. There is one salvation plan that applies equally to everyone. Old Testament side of the cross or New Testament side of the cross; anyone who's coming, is only coming through the blood. And Jesus was to be "…testified in due time…"

Now this word "testified" means "to make known" or "be witnessed to" and involves the preacher's personal knowledge of what is being testified to. Now what is being testified to; Paul had just stated: (There is one God and Christ is the only mediator between God and man.)

"… in due time.." or "in his own time" - This "his own" making specific reference to "Who gave himself ransom". So what this phrase means is that the time Christ would be revealed as the mediator between the One God and man; was to occur within the time frame Christ walked the earth. The word "time" here does not simply mean a succession of space of elapsed minutes. It carries more the implication of the time frame of a certain opportunity.

The next verse Paul goes on to explain that he is "ordained an apostle…. a teacher to the gentiles in faith and verity." "Verity" here means: an unveiled reality manifested in the material world.

So what Paul is saying is; this here is the time that what was to be revealed is proven because we've witnessed it in the material world. (I.E. those who saw resurrected Jesus in the flesh; prior to ascending into heaven.)

The fact that it was witnessed in the material world, proved that the timing of those who would be melded from Jew and gentile into one body, was to occur in proximity of the life time of Christ. Remember Jesus told the disciples these things would come to pass in their lifetime. This excludes some future age where God is allegedly going to awaken a group of people (i.e. "Jews") who were blinded (allegedly in part until the fullness of the gentiles comes in and so all Israel shall be saved). I'll explain that passage in a minute.

Where'd the 1st Century Jews go?

Little history lesson first though! What happened to the people who were the genetic descendants of Judah and Benjamin who lived during the time Jesus walked the earth?

One of two things happened: (Remember the 10 tribes to the north were destroyed by the Assyrians before the Babylonian captivity.)

1. They converted to Christianity and got out of the area.

2. They were destroyed by the Roman army in the Roman / Jewish wars.

So, not only does the Scripture not support this dispensationalist notion of some future time of salvation for the Jews. There are literally no genetic descendants today of the tribes of Judah or Benjamin. Should this surprise us though? No it shouldn't, because Jesus told us this was going to happen. This was told to us in the parable of the cursing of the fig tree.

References to "fig tree" is used about 40 times in the Bible. Most of these are in the Old Testament and if you look at all these references they have application to Israel.

For example: Judges 9 gives a parable of trees asking 4 different trees / plants to come be king over them.

1. The olive tree - says no; for by me they honor God and man.

2. The fig tree - says no; should I forsake my sweetness and good fruit?

3. The vine - says no; my wine cheers God and man.

4. The bramble - says; put your trust in my shadow, but if you don't, than the fire will come out of the bramble and devour the cedars of Lebanon.

So what do these trees represent?

Olive - Where in the New Testament do we see a reference to olive oil? In one parable, Jesus describes 5 foolish virgins who don't have enough oil for their lamps and their lamps go out. Other references are anointing oil poured on someone in preparation for what ever they're about to embark upon. One passage talks about being anointed with the oil of gladness from God and Revelation talks about exorbitant price for oil and wine. Oil is often a reference to the Holy Spirit.

Fig - The main passage in the New Testament is where Jesus curses the fig tree. He's looking for fruit because he's hungry. He does't find any fruit. It says "because the time of figs was not". Why was "the time of figs not"; because the time of figs had already passed. Going back into the Old Testament. The passages that talk about fig tree's fruit; fig is in the singular. The proverbial fig tree has only ever bore one fig. That fig is Christ. He is the "seed of Abraham" (again singular). Galatians 3:16

Vine - This one should be easy. What does wine represent? The blood of Christ; which cheers God and man.

Bramble - The bramble ends up ruling over them; if they trust in its shadow. Hebrews 10:1 - the law was a shadow of things to come. Hebrews 8:5 - talks about the high priest being a shadow of Christ. If they don't trust in the shadow; the fire consumes them. Those who are condemned to eternal damnation are judged by what? - the law.

So when the fig tree says: "shall I forsake my sweetness and good fruit"; do we have any indication from the words in this passage itself what this means? "Sweetness" means "ripe" and "good" actually means "moral". Now how is ripe fruit moral? But only from a parabolic perspective.

Now ironically, here's the catch. Did the "fig tree" (Israel) forsake its "fruit" (Christ)? The obvious answer to this is yes. Although the totality of the people did not forsake him; the "official statement" of the nation was yes; we do not want this man as our king.

So, just as was pointed out in the language in 1 Timothy 2 and Romans 16; the window of opportunity where Christ was revealed as the mediator between God and man was delivered unto "all nations" "in his own time".