Matthew 24

(part 6)

Now in this chapter, we'll look at some interesting possibilities as related to Christ's bodily ascension back to heaven and His bodily return upon Judgement Day.

Does the Covid pandemic play any role in this; as related to the beast system's attempts to drive a particular agenda and the presentation of a particular narrative onto the world stage? This question will be introduced in this chapter and addressed in the next.

We know these gematria / numeric witchcraft "numbers" are important to the beast system's beliefs. We also know the "Christian" Dispensational narrative parallels the Talmudic political Zionism narrative.

Does the number 10 have any relevance though, in comparing the 10 days between the ascension and Pentecost; to the decade between 2023 and 2033, as it relates to the Covid pandemic? We'll investigate a theory on that starting in this chapter and continuing in the next.

So let's get started:

Luke 21 = The Ascension?

And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;

Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.

And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. (Luke 21:25-27)

And… here's exactly what happened.

Now let's address a couple of phrases in this passage. First let's look at "Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory".

Now (as stated in a former chapter) I came to the conclusion, based on the use of the singular word "cloud" (as opposed to clouds) and comparing it to Acts; that the passage in Luke is talking about Christ's ascension back to heaven. Note "they" (who are "in heaven" and "on the earth" as well as those in Sheol) their hearts are failing them for "looking after those things which are coming on the earth". (Luke 21:26) Judgement Day is "coming on the earth". They just didn't know when!

Commonly, I think we read about the ascension in Acts and don't think about who (besides the apostles) "saw something happen". Yet if Christ returns in glory, "in like manner" as He ascended back to heaven; was this event actually witnessed by everyone on the planet? (As we know the Final Return in Glory will be.) And if it was; what did they see?

For that answer, let's go back to Exodus a minute. We know the disciples saw "a cloud". Now where else do we see "God in a cloud"? (He was the "cloud" between Israel and the Egyptian army.) The people leaving Egypt (who were not all Israelites; there were plenty of Egyptians and other foreigners who left with Israel) saw a cloud; but what did the Egyptian army see? (They saw a pillar of fire.) (Exodus 14:24)

So the disciples see a cloud and what does the rest of the world see?

(A pillar of fire?)

Josephus's "Sword of the Lord"?

Now Josephus records "an interesting event"; but he records it as a "comet across the sky" that looks like "the sword of the Lord". Josephus said the appearance of this "comet" occurred during the siege of Jerusalem.

Yet considering Josephus's "political agenda"; could it be that he was exaggerating, or very well may have fudged the actual date of this "comet"? (This type of "historical interpretation" isn't actually uncommon for Josephus; as well as Greek and Roman records, related to the 70 AD siege of Jerusalem. Or at least according to modern secular "historians".) The Jews at the time interpreted this "sword of the Lord" against the Romans and the Romans interpreted it against the Jews. (The Romans also recorded this event.)

Well, history tells us who was on the receiving end of Judgement - The Roman army destroyed Jerusalem.

But did the ascension look like a "comet" coming out of Jerusalem?

If we take the Roman / Jewish interpretation of this "comet event" and if their dates aren't actually accurately presented to the modern public; that would make sense.

Now to add some more intrigue to this. Hailey's comet did pass by and was visible from Jerusalem in 66 A.D. Many have claimed this was the "sword of the Lord" both Josephus and Tacitus talk about; simply on account of their pairing a known astronomical event to a historical event. (Josephus = History of the Wars; 3,5&6: Tacitus = H(history) 5&13)

But this is also fudging the Roman / Jewish wars / destruction of Jerusalem timeline by four years. (Hailey's comet = 66 AD; Destruction of Jerusalem = 70 AD) Which granted is a smaller space of time than the 40 years between the appearance of John the Baptist in the wilderness (30 AD) and the destruction of the temple (70 AD).

Besides, the ancients were fairly astute astronomers; they knew Hailey's comet ran a predictable circuit and they were certainly capable of calculating their expectations to see it again. So the appearance of Hailey's comet would not have been a surprise. And besides this; I doubt anyone would describe Hailey's comet as looking like "the sword of the Lord" over Jerusalem.

Both the Romans and the Chinese cite an "unscheduled" comet that is currently dated (by "modern historians") to have appeared in 60 AD; also said to have been visible for 6 months. (Josephus says it was visible for a year.)

Again though, are the Romans, Chinese and Josephus all recording the same event; and do "the modern powers that be" have the date and length of its presence accurately communicated to the modern public? (Those "on the in" may know; yet are purposely misleading the masses, as to the actual date the ancients recorded these things to have happened. Just as the 3rd century rabbis knew the Book of Daniel was not talking about the Maccabean revolt. Anther example of Christ's "vintage being marred"?)

I raise this hypothesis because the Romans and the Chinese were generally pretty accurate in dating the things they recorded. So it's just as likely that this was an accurately recorded "other event"; as well as Josephus would have had a political agenda to do some "date swapping".

As per the Chinese record of this "unscheduled comet"? I don't know for sure that the Chinese records specifically date this; and if they do, is the public being told the truth of what the Chinese dated it as? (Thus we'd be sure it was in the 60's AD and not actually the 30's AD. For such as was the case concerning the darkening of the sun. The Chinese record this as having happened during the reign of a certain dynasty; (which correlates to the crucifixion) but they don't "date" it, other than stating that it did not happen as would have been expected of a naturally occurring eclipse.)

As per the Romans though? We know Tacitus's dating is not specific enough to say distinctly "the siege of Jerusalem". All Tacitus says is that it was "of that era". Yet looking at Scripture and considering Barabbas and the tumultuous times Rome had with the Jews; Tacitus's record very well may have encompassed the time of Christ's death as "of that era".

As per records from any other part of the world? There really "aren't any"; and this is most likely because this would have been prior to "written history" in most of those areas. That is until we start considering Mayan records.

The "Mayans":

Now the development of Native American societies into "stationary empires" as existed like unto the Egyptians, Sumerians, Assyrians or other Canaanite early societies; begins as the conglomerate of peoples and "Mayan" is more an identifier of a geographic area than it is a named people or empire. Much like "Mesopotamian" is also a geographical identifier. "Mayan" is the name the empire takes on from its geographical origin point.

The "Mayan empire" much like Sumer started out as it's own quasi "city state" and subsequently grew into an empire. And assuming that much like ancient near eastern cities and their subsequent empires grew from trade routes; the Mayan civilization developed the same way.

The Mayan empire was the first in the Americas to have a had a well enough developed hieroglyph type of written communication that manifest in enough abundance of archeological finds that paleo-graphologists could figure out how to read the writing.

But "Mayan" and pre-Mayan being what the Mayan's labeled as "Olmec peoples"; (who were defined by the Mayans as nomadic and currently identified by archeologists as "pre-Mayan civilization" though they coexisted in time) their writing ranges in dates, "abundance of archeological examples" and evolving complexity from about 700 BC to the Spanish coming to South America. That's about 2000 years; which is a hefty span for understanding, logging, categorizing and dating the written history of a civilization and the subsequent political kingdoms that existed within it.

Much of what is currently deciphered of Mayan writing though, is dated to about 200 AD and after. So while the Mayans did record their observations of astronomy; there's currently no way of dating their astronomical records, because the time line that establishes the sequence of political kingdoms within that civilization still lacks enough information to make established links between those political kingdoms.

The interesting thing though, is that Mayan records do record a "smaller comet" as well as what they interpreted as "the planet that became Venus". The written records of these two undated "events" are commonly linked in the same Mayan narrative, as it appears in the development of their hieroglyphic writings.

Venus "Comet theory" Noah's Flood, the Chinese and the Mayans:

Now records of rearrangements of the planets within our solar system, is a global phenomena, which is most commonly seen in seafaring maps. This has often been chalked up to "sailors have vivid imaginations" by modern scientists, who believe our solar system has been "static" for billions of years.

Now alternate history theorists, who take these sea maps at face value, based on the accuracy of their mapping; (they have accurate maps of the antarctic coast, when allegedly Antarctica has been buried under glaciers since long before prehistoric times). These alternate history theorists have hypothesized that Venus is actually a "comet" (or maybe more a large rock mass entering into the inner layer of our solar system's planetary orbits around the sun) from what ever event formed the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Either way, multiple ancient mariner records label Venus as having been a comet.

The theory has some interesting elements to its probable degrees of truth; seeing how Venus is different than any other planet. It's the only planet with a sulfuric atmosphere and Venus rotates in the opposite direction of every other planet in our solar system.

Also, if a comet collided with a planetary body that had been between Mars and Jupiter; that event could certainly "mess up" the alignment of planetary bodies as they revolve around the sun. Thus having to "reset" themselves as these ancient mariner maps record "a comet" and Jupiter coming closer and then moving away from earth. This could also account for the current hypothesis that Mars once had water on it. As also several of Jupiter's moons are believed to have water on them. Planets often get their water sources off the ice of comets.

The other "anomaly" in geological history is the "meteor" layer that covers the earth. This sliver layer that is below most of the layers of fossils, is "space rock dust" and the theory is that a sizable meteor hit the planet. The hypothesis being, this created a tidal wave; which is the main source of the world wide flood (and also the main event that cause the extinction of the dinosaurs).

The current theory is this meteor struck what is now the Gulf of Mexico basin and was the catalyst that commenced the dividing of the continents. The Gulf of Mexico basin bears "continental shelf" characteristics similar to other known land mass impact craters. The basin just filled with water after the flood receded.

Which this raises an interesting question about an archeological anomaly found in China. In one particular area, under the earliest evidence of Chinese culture is a 15 or so foot slab of mud. Beneath this slab of mud is another civilization. That civilization though is not "Chinese" in origin. The characters of its writing more resemble the characters of early Mesopotamian writing than early Chinese writing.

Was this where Noah was?

In "flood theory"; this would make sense. If Noah actually built the ark on what we'd call the east coast of the Asian plate? For him to be "washed out to sea" (over the Pacific Ocean) would be the safest outcome for the scenario of a massive meteor hitting the other end of Pangea and causing a global tidal wave. Noah being pushed out over the ocean where there was little possibility of him being hit with continental debris from the tidal wave, would "explain" (in "material world application") the survival of the ark. He's carried over this gigantic ocean for 40 days; only to "end up" back at the origin point of what had been the Garden of Eden. (A new start for Adam's progeny.)

Now how, (or why) did Noah "end up" in "China"; so far away from where Eden had been? Scripture doesn't explain that; but anthropologically speaking, it would make sense that a group of people would migrate east to "get away from" the pre-flood environment influenced by the "Nephilim incident".

Or... given what we know about the ultimate scope of the redemption plan; it's also possible that Noah came from a "pre-Chinese" quasi "gentile" people group? After all, God does call all kinds and the intent of the redemption plan has always encompassed all of humanity. We have plenty of other examples of this in the Scripture. We have Tamar, Rehab, Bathsheba and Ruth who were all in the direct lineage of the Messiah. Nobody has any idea what "ethnicity" Job was and Abraham just happened to be some guy living in Ur when God called him.

So, in terms of Biblical timeline; the Mayan's "Venus comet event" most likely would have coincided with Noah's flood. And assuming based on the fact that Noah built a giant "boat"; this common mariner "oral lore" (where by information on maps has come off of) could very well hearken back to the flood.

This also bears some interesting correlations between far eastern civilizations and Native American civilizations as we know Native American's came from that people group. (Mayan "oral lore" apparently has "a good memory" even despite their lack of written revelation of Scripture.)

Post "days of Pelage" and the Tower of Babel; we would expect to see an accelerated rate of groups migrating away from each other. And as the continents continued to shift via massive volcanic activity; there are some interesting similarities between the styles of Egyptian, early Chinese and Mayan hieroglyph writing. Though they are distinctly different from each other; they are all still a similar format of writing, in that they are all "pictorial"; whereas early Mesopotamian (what would become the Semitic language base) is an "individual characters" driven writhing system.

Yet getting back to the Mayan astronomical records we also have a "little comet" coupled in this hieroglyph "event". Could this "little comet" been the Mayan's record of Josephus's (Tacitus and the Chinese) "Sword of the Lord" event? Again, we don't know because we have no way of dating these Mayan hieroglyphic records.

What I do find interesting though is if the "Venus comet" and the initial laying down of the fault line that would become the "lightening from the east to the west" sign of the coming of the Son of man, hearkening all the way back to the flood; now linked to "the little comet"! If the Mayans really did link these events that were 5000 years apart; (the flood and the crucifixion / ascension) I find it fascinating that they would have put these two events together; in like manner as the Scripture does: "to boot".

On the other hand though, if the Mayan civilization was studious of their recitations of their oral history, prior to solidifying their form of written codification; (which assuming by their calendar they were) it would make sense that they'd link these cosmic events, especially if things of such significant observable nature, did not happen in-between.

Which of course this brings us to the Mayan calendar. Their calendar (like the ancient Chinese astronomers) is amazingly accurate as far as their observations of astronomy. (Anther link between the far eastern and Mayan cultures?) Yet their current calendar also came from earlier Olmec calendars. (Mayan records state this themselves.) Which obviously Olmec calendars would hearken back to the "Venus comet allegation" event.

Now I know close to zilch about the Mayan religion; other than they practiced human sacrifices at one point and their religious observances were correlated to their calendar.

Of the Olmec calendars though; I suspect they ran on the same megalithic structural principles as other megaliths such as Stonehenge and the Giza Pyramids. (Assuming they took on some sort of pyramid format, on account of the global commonality of the use of the pyramid as a style of "calendar creation". We see pyramids in the far east as well as the Americas.)

I'm not aware of any "readily recognizable" prehistoric megalithic calendar structures in the America's that are known to have been calendars. Although there are plenty of prehistoric megalithic structures in the Americas that mark things such as the summer solstice. None from the prehistoric era have been excavated enough to definitively conclude them as "practicing calendars". Come post written history eras though; yes. We know the Mayans also built buildings (primarily pyramid shaped) for both the purpose of astronomical observation as well as astronomic "time keeping".

And of course with the proliferation of information about the Mayan calendar; many have said it predicts the end of time.

Now whether the Mayan priests, astronomers or whomever tried to come up with a date for the end of time? I don't know. (If they did though; it wouldn't surprise me. "Date setting" is not an uncommon human postulation.) It is true though that the Mayan calendar "runs out of days" in our era; although what that represents is obviously pretty fuzzy to calendar readers.

Now did the ancient far eastern civilizations also have a similar calendar system for "predicting the end of time"? If they did; we've yet to recognize it. The other possibility is that the prevailing far eastern "end time predicting" culture just whole sale transplanted itself from "China" to Latin America thus "becoming" the "Mayans". After all there is ample genetic evidence of a relation between the two people groups.

But just like the gematria time tables and other historical and cultural "end times prophetic" calculations and hypothesis; even error bears shades of truth, because we all intuitively know the end is coming. It's just that none of us can definitively say that we know exactly when.

So, as per the phenomena of a "comet from earth"; (other than what's already been mentioned) I'm not aware of any oral traditions about said events. Not to say that they don't exist. I'm just haven't found any further records of them.

An Ascension outside of "Time"?

And, here's another interesting twist to this. Looking at the language in Acts 1 and the apostles "gazing into the sky". We generally assume that the ascension only took a couple of hours; (if that).

The language is pretty clear though, that they were "fixated" on that spot until the "two men in white apparel"; (assuming these are angles) told them Christ would return in like matter as they saw Him ascend. The language that described their "watching" implies that they were "camped out" there (or intending to "camp out there" - think back to what Peter says to Jesus on the Mt of Transfiguration.) waiting for His return. The message of these two angels seeming to be: "Don't worry guys; you're not going to miss it when He does come back!"

The next "event" we have described after this, is Pentecost. Which we know was 10 days after the ascension. The only information we have is that it was a "sabbath's day journey" from the Mount of Olives back to where they were staying in the city. (2000 cubits = 3/4 mile / about 1 KM) So had they been waiting on the Mount of Olives for 10 days?

Jesus rose from the dead on Sunday and ascended back to heaven 40 days later. This would have been 5 weeks and 5 days from the resurrection. (Meaning the ascension would have occurred on a Friday.) Ten days later is Pentecost. (Pentecost occurred on Sunday approximately a week and a half later.)

10 Days:

"Ten days" as a "stand alone" number is only used 6 places in the Scripture and in all of those places; it's a "trial period" that concludes in a judgement of some sort. (Some receiving a reward on the other end of that trial.)

1 Samuel 25 = Nabal dies 10 days after God strikes him down for not selling David his vineyard.

Nehemiah 5 = 10 days after completion of the wall is Nehemiah's feast.

Jeremiah 42 = 10 days after Jeremiah's prayer concerning the coming Babylonian captivity; does God answer Jeremiah and the people. (If they abide in the land; He won't destroy them from out of the land.)

Daniel 1 = 10 days Daniel and his companions only eat vegetables instead of the king's food.

Revelation 2 = The church of Smyrna will have tribulation 10 days from the synagogue of Satan; of which those who are "faithful unto death" will receive a crown of life.

The commencement of the "great tabulation" to the resurrection was also 10 days.

And of course 10 days between the ascension and Pentecost.

So the implication is that there are "10 days" between the completion of a work and the celebration (or judgement) at its conclusion.

Now does that "10 day" number have some application to the end of time? It appears that it does, but what that application is; I'm not sure?

If it's another "one day is as 1000 years"; then "10,000 years" doesn't fit into anything that I can identify. 10,000 years back from 2033 AD; (if that's the marker) would put us somewhere in the life span of the progenitor of Enoch. 10,000 years back from the birth of Christ; puts us somewhere about the end of Seth's life. Which that doesn't seem to "fit" either, because if we are talking about some "reward" / "judgement" post conclusion of this "10 days"; we are still 2000 years on the other side of Christ's death. Even though we could say that 10 days post ascension represents an important change in application of relationship between believer and Holy Ghost.

Although it is possible that 2000 year / 10,000 year gap represents something "commencing" with Seth's generations and "concluding" with Enoch's previous patriarch. (Enoch is the one that's "translated" at 365 years old.)

Smyrna's 10 day tribulation from the synagogue of Satan? Does that represent a literal 10 day span at the very end of time? A metaphoric "10 day" (year?) span at the very end of time? The passage says that "some of you" (of Smyrna dealing with the synagogue of Satan) will be "imprisoned" by Satan to be "tempted" and "to be afflicted"; that if survived will be awarded a crown of life.

The last segment of Matthew 24 speaks about the wicked servant beating the other servants. (This is in context of the church.) We also know that "when they say peace and safety" is some indicative "marker" of the imminent return of Christ. (When they are declaring unto you "blessing of heath" "at the close of the conversation"; the end comes on the heals of this "as a thief in the night".) Yet not everyone of "Smyrna" (dealing with the "synagogue of Satan") will be dealing with this.

So… what is this "synagogue of Satan" trial?

That we will explore in the next chapter. The next chapter will deal with the pandemic and the meshing of the political "patriot populous movement", political zionism and the dispensational narrative.