42 Months - A Revisit

(Revelation 11:2, 13:5)

11/29/2021 "update":

Now here's the next chapter I will put right here for now; which will eventually be moved up to the sequence of the crowns, horns and abomination of desolation chapters related to the Herods.

In the chapter following this one; I will cover information about our current global circumstances. I want to address certain aspects of how the "beast system" manifests itself and obtains its power through a form of psychosis that can be perpetrated upon masses of people. I will call that chapter; "The Beast and the Psychosis of Last Day Societies".

I'd encountered this mechanism explained from a video Peak Prosperity had presented on YouTube. Dr. Chris Martinson had interviewed Professor Mattias Desmet from the Ghent University in Belgium. When I watched that video a "light bulb went off" as to how the "beast system" has done what it's done.

Professor Desmet uses the term "mass formation" to describe this phenomena of the formation of mass psychosis in societies. The context of this Peak Prosperity interview was the relationship of the disconnect between the actions of governments, related to the actual data about the level of threat the SARS COV II virus presents to human societies. In their conversation, Professor Desmet not only describes what "mass formation" is and how it happens; he also gives a very enlightening description of the differences between "classical dictators" and the "totalitarian state".

I found this discussion very interesting because it explained in psychology terms, how the beast system brought global society to where it is today. There are fundamental changes in how humans live today, that did not exist 300 or more years ago. Technology and media have been both our greatest curse, as well as our greatest blessing!

In this upcoming chapter too though, I'd like to share some information coming out from medical doctors that is intended to render aide to the recipients of mRNA "vaccines"; as the real dangers of their increased mortality begin to stack up further in the evidence of the statistical data.

It's important to give people strategies that offer some means of being able to take back some control in our lives. We all need to know that there are ways we can resist this totalitarian oppression and that it's important to the mental health of our individual societies to do so.

So these are what I intend to cover in the next chapter I post.

I'm still calling parts of this chapter an "update" , because as this pandemic continues to unfold; there certainly appears to be a push for the premillennial dispensational narrative to make its political appearance on the world stage. (The "apparent beast" aspect of it in what they call "The Great Reset".)

But for the bulk of this chapter; my further investigation will be of this 42 months (1260 days). This chapter began with an individual on Christian Forums asking me a question about it. The context of that thread was comparisons between amillennialism and postmillennialism.

Postmillennialism:

Prior to about the middle of the 20th century; anyone who wasn't a "premillennialist" was a "postmillennialist". The distinction between amillennial and postmillennial came about on account of how the two camps see the material manifestation of God's Kingdom on earth.

Early postmillennialism (which pretty much ended with the French Revolution) believed the Kingdom of God would break forth into a type of utopian "golden age" of "Christian rule" and would spread through the political life of nations around the world. The hope of that notion, I believe sprung out of the experience of British and American societies as they watched The Great Awakening roll out across the emerging British Empire of the late 18th century.

Once the French Revolution and the Napoleonic Wars started though; that eschatological viewpoint lost popularity. And here is where the notion of Napoleon being "the anti-christ" (or the first of 3 "anti-christs") manifested its inception and thus gaining popularity through the 20th century; particularly as WWI and WWII came to pass. (Peoples' interpretations of Nostradamus's predictions became a major part of this, come the beginning of the 19th century.) Thus premillennial dispensationalism "piggy backs" onto this postmillennial conceptualization of the unfolding of God's Kingdom. Dispensationalism just "flips the script" so to speak.

Modern postmillennialism has seen a rebirth of the concept of this type of utopian "golden age" of "Christian rule" in the political life of nations. The difference between early postmillennialism and modern postmillennialism is that the modern postmillennialists have tacked another two to three to four thousand years onto this process. (Jesus isn't going to return for at least another 2000 years.)

Which has made modern postmillennialism the equivalent of the original Darwinian cosmological "eons of evolutionary origin". Yet of course, as more was uncovered in both the fossil record; (as well as human understanding of genetics and biology) Darwinian evolution has adopted the "gap theory" in an attempt to explain the "Cambrian explosion" and obvious lack of "transitional life forms" in the fossil record. It'll be interesting to see of modern postmillennialism eventually adopts its own version of a "gap theory".

Looking at what's going on politically today though, with the global agenda of "The Great Reset"; I'm not thinking modern postmillennialism is going to have a whole lot of converts. (I may be surprised though?)

What I do find ironic is; premillennial dispensationalism and modern postmillennialism have their concepts of a "material reign" of Christ upon this corrupted earth.

Now their ideas of that "reign" don't manifest in the same way; but the concept of a "golden age" of some "material manifestation" of the reign of God's Kingdom on this corrupted earth, remains.

Ironically though, whereas one schema puts off the judgement post the 1000 year millennium; the other postpones Christ's return for another 2000 plus years. Which thus manifests in both of these systems as "the Lord delays His coming". Yet another manifestation of the false doctrines of the beast system? (I don't know; but that appears to fit.)

42 Months in History?

So getting back (again) to the question of the 42 months; (it has been raised in several contexts now across multiple chapters). Is there a place in history that this fits into the timeline of Christ's first coming? (It's "primary fulfillment"; so to speak.)

In the chapters related to the "abomination that causes desolate"; I covered information regarding Herod the Great and his attempts to kill Jesus. There is a 1290 day span and there is a 2300 day span related to Jesus going to Egypt. (Both come out of the book of Daniel.)

There's also a 1335 day time span which is the time between when John the Baptist appears preaching repentance in the wilderness to Pentecost. The 70 weeks of Daniel 9 plays in here too, as the span between the death of John the Baptist to Pentecost.

There's 62 weeks which commences from John's death to the Friday that dawned the 7 day "great tribulation" (the week of the crucifixion). That was "cut short" by Passover; which came on the tail end of the "3 days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth".

This was related to the atonement and the havoc the wrath of God wreaked on Jesus's human soul. Thus the necessity for his soul to be condemned to Sheol; which was the result of his encounter with the Angel of Death (personification of God in His wrath) on Passover. This also served as a mercy for the redemption of sinners, on account of the reality that Jesus didn't loose his mind; for if he had, it's not likely Pilate would have executed him.

And yes, I realize that was a "theological mouthful"; of which these things do get addressed in other parts of this study.

But now we're revisiting this 1260 day time span? (Which is 42 lunar / 30 day months.) Where does that fit into this? (1290 days is 43 lunar / 30 day months.)

We have another couple of other places which appear that a "42 months" is eluded to:

The two witnesses (Revelation 11 = 3.5 days)

The woman in the wilderness (Revelation 12 = 3.5 days)

The little horn (Daniel 7 = only "time" reference given is "a time and a season". But also he "subdues 3 kings". The end of the chapter though does talk about "time, times and the dividing of time" = 3.5)

Well we've already extensively covered 3.5 days. The two witnesses in the wilderness. (The law and the prophets; i.e. the written revelation of Scripture.) The woman in the wilderness. (The body of believers; be they Old Testament side of the cross or New Testament.) Note both entities coincide to the same time reference; the 3.5 days.

Now on top of that we have a reference to the "king" / "little horn" and time, times and 1/2 time.

So, let's take another look at the little horn of Daniel.

I'd covered earlier that this appears to be Herod the Great. He's confronted with the birth of the Messiah. Yet after Herod the Great dies; comes Archelaus, Antipas and Philip. The next king to come along is Agrippa 1.

Yet, as is stated in Daniel 7:24 the little horn "subdues 3 kings"; (Archelaus, Antipas and Philip). There were no notable "three kings" Herod the Great subdued connected to apostate Judaism and the beast system; despite the fact that Herod the Great had "taken out" those of the priest class who held orientation to political power. We know obviously that he didn't slaughter all the Levites on account of the record of the father of John the Baptist. But he had gotten rid of the priests who were against his own agenda to increase his status in relation to the Roman Empire.

And in addition to the political agenda; (as it has manifest itself both in the 1st century as well as the present day) there's no denying that Herod the Great wanted the title of "king of the Jews".

After Herod the Great dies, Archelaus is the next to die. (18 A.D.) Antipas dies in 39 A.D., after Agrippa 1 has already received a certain rulership from Tiberius, which was predicated upon Agrippa paying off his debts. (Was this held over from another Herod? I don't know; but it appears that this is the sole personal debt of Agrippa 1.)

So in the historical time frame we have Herod the Great and we have Herod Agrippa 1. They appear to be "book ended" rulers of the total region of Judea. The "king(s) of the Jews" so to speak.

Now here's where it gets interesting in relation to Scripture and prophecy about the life of Jesus Christ.

Herod Agrippa 1 is talked about in Acts 12:21-23 as being struck down by God Himself, for not acknowledging that he (Agrippa 1) is not God. I'm not aware of any other New Testament ruler (other than Daniel's prophecy eluding to Herod the Great "broken without hand") that this is stated of. So in regards to prophecy going back to Daniel; I think that's important to note. It's recorded in the book of Acts for a reason!

Now, let's take a look at the history a minute.

Herod Agrippa 1 reigned over the entire kingdom of Judea between 41 and 44 A.D. He was the first (and last) Herod to rule over the entire domain of Judea, in the same rite as his grandfather Herod the Great had.

The commencement of the reign of Herod Agrippa I, over the entirety of Judea, began somewhere after January 22nd 41 A.D. of the Gregorian calendar; (January 24th of the Julian calendar) which marked the death of Emperor Caligula Caesar.

Herod Agrippa 1 died sometime after Passover of 44 A.D. We know this based on what Acts says. Also that he'd killed James and put Peter in Prison. After Easter, he intended to bring Peter out of the prison to set him before the people (obviously with the intent of execution, as had happened with Jesus).

Peter though, was freed by an angel sometime before the date Herod Agrippa 1 had intended for Peter. Was Peter released on Easter Sunday? Scripture doesn't say specifically; but it doesn't discount that possibility either. If Peter was freed from prison on Easter Sunday; that would have been a clear indication to anyone who understood what was going on in the area; that he indeed was a rightful apostle of the Messiah.

Thus pinpointing prophecy in relation to the book of Daniel, as it applied to what was left of Israel, would make sense from the point of God declaring a prophetic fulfillment. The Jewish rulers (and particularly the Pharisees) would have known this. For we see in the following centuries that the Talmud seeks to twist Daniel into "prophetic fulfillments" that lead people who follow Rabbinic teachings, away from Jesus Christ.

Easter Sunday in 44 A.D. would have fallen on April 3rd of the Gregorian calendar (April 5th of the Julian calendar.)

365 - 24 = 341 days (year #1) + 365 (year #2) + 365 (year #3) = 1071 days.

1260 - 1071 = 189 days.

44 AD to Easter is about 90 days. Which leaves us 99 day from Easter Sunday until Herod Agrippa I dies; or at least according to the Gregorian calendar.

But 1260 days divided by 365 day solar year comes out to 3.45 years. So 3 years and 4.5 months after Caligula dies; puts the death of Herod Agrippa 1 within two months of Easter 44 A.D.

Revelation 2:

Now here's another interesting caveat related to numbers in the book of Revelation as they applied to the year 44 A.D. and what was happening to the church.

8 And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write; These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;

9 I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan.

10 Fear none of those things which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, (Peter) that ye may be tried; and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, (James) and I will give thee a crown of life.

11 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; He that overcomes shall not be hurt of the second death.

Note the relevance of this passage. Peter was cast into prison and James was killed. "10 days" Smyrna is persecuted by "the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews".

Is this a literal 10 days? In regards of this event recorded in Acts?

That appears to be the case; (or at least it's certainly plausible). Peter was put into prison during the days of unleavened bread and released sometime on, or before that Easter Sunday. While James was killed shortly before Peter's arrest. So a literal "10 days" does appear to apply here!

Now what (if any) is the time significance between 33 AD and 44 AD? (I'm not sure? It's technically 11 years, not 10. This passage in Revelation says "10 days" not "ten years".) Yet, could there still be some sort of correlation here? (I don't know, but there's definitely some (more) "interesting coincidences" that I've found.)

Another caveat to consider; (which I'm not sure where this puzzle piece fits either?) is that Paul is the one who ordered the death of Stephen. (Irony that this apostate "circumcised", becomes the "apostle to the uncircumcision", after murdering the first recoded martyr in the New Testament. God certainly appears to have an ironic "sense of humor".)

The next question becomes the time reference to this event, as related to "10 day tribulation" of Smyrna? Did Stephen die a year after Pentecost 33 A.D.? If we compare to these "time references" in Revelation; that seems like a logical possibility. We know the gospel had been spreading long enough for Saul / Paul to have become incensed by it.

(Other interesting tidbit of history I'd recently come across. Saul didn't "change his name" to Paul. Saul was his Hebrew name and Paul was his legal Roman name.)

So does some sort of timetable connect in anyway between Agrippa 1 and Paul's conversion? Stephen's death would have happened 3 years before Agrippa 1 began to rule Philip the Tetrarch's territory.

Paul obviously had been part of that "political network". We can assume this because he was a Roman citizen. Was Paul's conversion a "personalized" warning to Agrippa 1 who'd become "the little horn". (Was Herod the Great) the proverbial "big horn"; thus Agrippa 1 is called "the little horn"? That is possible, seeing how that "big / little" "chip off the old block" metaphor, Jesus eludes to in reference to Peter being called Cephas. So is that metaphor hidden in the Hebrew, within the book of Daniel's reference to "little horn"? That's possible; but if that's the case, I don't have enough expertise in Hebrew language structure to be able to identify it.

Caligula gave to Herod Agrippa 1, Philip the Tetrarch's territory in 37 A.D. He was a ruler a total of 7 years; 3.45 of them being the sole ruler over all Judea.

Does this not sound like the "antichrist language" modern dispensationalists associate with Daniel's "middle of the week"? Here's a dispensational irony the modern eschatological schema neglects to recognize; despite the fact that their schema is an illusion to the true prophecy that had to do with Christ's atonement.

Is not God the "interesting prankster" in that He "allows" them, in their own deception, to fulfill their own "prophecy"! There's a few passages in the Old Testament that talk about God laughing at "the heathen" and having them in derision. And thus in our day; we see a similar unfolding of the same narrative (the pandemic / Great Reset / premillennial dispensationalist agenda)!

Interesting! - Actually kind of scary; but "interesting" none the less!)

Back to the 1st Century:

The totality of reign between the commencement of Herod the Great and the conclusion of Agrippa 1 is 80 years. 44 A.D. was the commencement of the civil unrest that would conclude with the Roman Jewish wars, ending in the destruction of the city some 26 years later, in 70 A.D.

And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. (Daniel 9:26)

There's an interesting correlation here between what happened to Jesus as part of the atonement and what happens to the nation from Herod Agrippa 1 starting in 44 A.D. to 70 A.D.

There's another interesting correlation to these events and the "life" of the material temple in Jerusalem. Just before Jesus was crucified, we have a "time reference" to the temple being under construction for 46 years. (John 20:2) This "46th year" marker lands us on 33 A.D. There are 24 years from 33 A.D. until we get to "70 years". 70 years from the commencement of the construction of the temple; (which would have started in 13 B.C.). This lands us on 57 A.D.

Now is there some correlating historical event that happened in 57 A.D.?

Yes there is!

What was that?

I think it is the year Peter was killed!

In Acts 24:27 we have another historical time reference. It's two years since Porcius Festus takes the place of Felix as governor. This happens somewhere between 59 and 60 A.D. Roman records say this happened in the 5th year of emperor Nero's reign.

Paul was arrested under Felix at least two years prior; which would have "landed" in 57 or 58 A.D. Paul was arrested when he went into Jerusalem, despite several other believers (as well as the Holy Spirit) telling him not to. (Acts 21)

Paul goes up into Jerusalem and with 4 other men who have taken a Nazarite vow; they purify themselves and go into the temple to offer the Nazarite vow sacrifice, with Paul as their spokesman.

Well, a bunch of people recognize Paul and this causes a big ruckus. The governor calls out the army to quell the riots and Paul is taken into "protective custody".

Now why was Paul so intent on going into Jerusalem "this one last time"; and why on earth is he taking this Nazarite vow? This makes no sense in the light of Paul being the "apostle to the gentiles". (Romans 11:3)

Unless he's thinking he's "returning again to the circumcision"; to be the "gospel to the circumcision"? I'll get to that in a minute. Paul had gotten himself into all this hot water, because he'd been telling the gentile believers (for…. at least 20 years by that point) that they did not need to follow the ceremonial law.

So why was Paul and these other 4 men doing this? Was it because Peter had been killed and there was no longer the "gospel to the circumcision"; (Galatians 2:7) thus Paul thinks he now needs to "fill the gap"?

We hear nothing following Acts 15 about Peter. What happened to Peter? Jesus had told Peter that he'd be killed in like manner as Christ had been. (John 21:18.) To "go where (Peter) would not" had to do with Peter's denial of Jesus and Jesus's execution. Peter had been animate to Jesus, that he'd be crucified right next to Jesus. Which obviously at that time, Peter didn't understand what the death of Christ meant.

Church lore says Peter was crucified upside down. (Probably not likely; although I do believe Peter was crucified based on what Jesus had said to him.)

Church legend also has Peter crucified in Rome, but there is no historical, or Scriptural evidence that Peter ever went to Rome. Scripture never gives us the details of what happened to Peter. Just that from chapter 15 on in the book of Acts; Peter has mysteriously….. disappeared!

Did the Roman authorities put Peter to death for "causing civil unrest" by preaching Christ? It's possible, despite the Scripture never gives us any information about Peter's death. He was imprisoned on at least one occasion that Scripture records. So it is plausible Peter had been executed by the Romans by that point. It doesn't seem likely that a mob of angry Jews would have just outright murdered Peter; having done so, of no fear of consequences from the Roman authorities for their actions.

Now why Scripture doesn't spell out to us, what happened to Peter? I'm not sure?

The answer to that may actually be in the book of Daniel. "Three score and two weeks" is 62 weeks. Ironically, if we back 62 years from 57 AD, we land on 5 B.C.; which is most likely the year Joseph, Mary and Jesus would have come back from Egypt; Christ "vindicated" of Herod the Great. Was Peter "the gospel to the circumcision" connected to the prophecy of the Messiah, as Herod the Great was connected to Agrippa 1?

If they weren't; we have another set of uncanny "interesting coincidences"! (They both die in the same manner; by the hand of "book ended" kings in the same line; "you are Cephas (pebble) and on this Rock, (Christ) I will build my church";

Other places do tell us details like that Peter had been arrested. They also tell us that Paul was headed to Rome to have audience before the emperor. Yet, Scripture does not record what happened to Paul past a certain point either. What we do know is that Paul comes into Jerusalem in 57 / 58 A.D. and Peter is absent. We have no other information of what happened to Peter.

Smyrna?

Now let's get sidetracked here a minute; (for "humor me" sake). The name Smyrna is a combination of two words "to spread" and the herb "myrrh". Myrrh means "bitterness" and "spreading" in this case, is a component of what makes up the word "anoint". I suppose we could loosely associate this church's name as "anointed unto death"; which makes sense in the context of this church is martyred.

Also note the "throw back" to James and John. "We can be 'anointed' with (the same) death (of Christ)." (Matthew 20:20-23) And apparently, here is the record of James's death.

Interesting; ehh!

All this being said; let's look for other places where: "time, times and dividing of time", "3.5", "42 months" are used.

The beast, including the "little horn" carry this out over the course of "time, times and dividing of time". That gets covered elsewhere in this study in the chapters "Time, Times and 1/2 Time". So thus we know from the entity (Satan) that constitutes the manifestation of these human antichrists; (as Paul states) these "kings" / "horns" etc. who's main focus is to blaspheme God and persecute believers; "continue" for 3.5 "increments of time". Obviously they present an interesting correlation with the 3500 years written Scripture has been with humanity.

"42 months" is used only two places; both in Revelation.

Revelation 11:2, Revelation 13:5

"42" as a stand alone number is only used 5 other places:

1. Numbers 35:5-7 - The Levites were to get 42 cities that were not refuges for man-slayers.

2. 2 Kings 2:24 - She bears kill 42 children for mocking Elijah.

3. 2 Chronicles 2:22 - Ahaziah was 42 years old when he began to reign in Jerusalem.

4. Ezra 2:24 - Azmaveth has forty and two children.

5. Nehemiah 7:28 - The men of Bethazmaveth are forty and two.

What the names Ahaziah, Azmaveth and Bethazmaveth mean, might give us some clue as to why "42" is important? But I don't see any "off the bat" obvious connections between "42 months" and the other places "42" is used.

But, back to specifically the 42 months of the beast's "power" to "continue".

The word "power" (was given to the beast) comes from a series of Greek words that when broken down to their bases mean: "of the law of the I Am". So what the passage is saying is that this "42 months" has a specific fulfillment that can be found in the prophecy of Scripture. That specific particular fulfillment is obviously found in Herod Agrippa 1. His reign ends with him being struck down by God after 42 months.

Now why is that (about Agrippa 1) in Scripture and what does it have to do with the atonement? (Not sure I know the answer to that?) But we do know that he was the last political king of all of Judea, specifically spoken of, connected to the writing of Scripture. He "ended" in 44 A.D. Which does this signify the end of the narrative of the political aspiration of Judea over against Rome?

2000 years later?

And do we have a "bitter end of time" correlation with "the king" (who or what ever individuals, institutions or political (deep state) agendas that may constitute) whom "one won't stand with him"?

Is that "one won't stand with him", because the focus of manipulative attention has shifted from the United States to China? The belt and road initiative? Was the un-surety of the event of "a Trump" "slipping into the wheel cogs" enough to derail the interest in this "cowboy rodeo"; for the "paper dragon new year's parade"? Sure appears to be the case. Who's the next most willing nation to commit fornication with Babylon the mother of harlots?

(After all, 10 horns / kings / nations make her desolate.)

Moving from the global microcosm of 1st century Rome to the current global stage; who might those 10 nations be? In 120 years we have: The Britain Empire, The French Empire, The Ottoman Empire, The German Empire, The Soviet Union, The United States, China, India, The Vatican and Corporate Protestantism. After all, these are the top 10 political powers of the last 120 years! Are they the "end time parallel"? (I don't know?)

With all that being said though; the more I contemplate how schizophrenically crazed Satan gets as his time shortens and shortens. It's easy to see how readily empires and all their human accomplishments become expendable. Even Satan's cherished "mother of harlots" is nothing more than another human trafficking venture.

Look at what consequences diving headlong into becoming the "big pharma Pfizer petri dish" has brought Israel in regards to this pandemic. They've become the "looking glass" into the future of what the western world has to look forward to, as bio-lab generated coronavirus variants rip through the human population and the vaccinated actually turn out to be worse off than the unvaccinated.

Gee look, it's Omicron season now! What happens when they run out of Greek alphabet letters? Are we "done" when the Omega variant hits? Satan doesn't care. We're all expendable!

So as it seems we are careening closer to destruction; the reality becomes that "no lives matter" to Satan and the "end game" objective is to cause as much destruction as possible.