Fall Feasts and the end of time?

For this next chapter, we will continue on some of the other information found concerning John the Baptist, Jesus and the Day of Atonement. In this chapter will be some miscellaneous loosely related information.

Nazarite Vow?

I'd read somewhere that the Day of Atonement also ended the Nazarite vow. (Interesting?) I have not found any Scripture passages that state that was the specifically the case; although it may have been a "by default" occurrence. The Day of Atonement required a sacrifice and if Nazarite vow adherence came in contact with a dead body; it automatically ended their vow. For the high priest though; obviously too, by default of his duties, a Nazarite vow would have ended on the Day of Atonement.

Which raises the question of whether or not Jesus being baptized on the Day of Atonement, was the fulfillment of Jesus's relationship to the OT law? Despite the fact that Scripture is unclear as to whether or not Jesus ever took a Nazarite vow. Because during his ministry, obviously he touches dead people and "eats with sinners", "breaks the sabbath" etc. Jesus is the fulfillment of the law and the prophets; and if the law is fulfilled by the point of his baptism; was the preaching the fulfillment of the prophets? (That would make sense too.)

Also we see a parallel where Samuel is designated as a Nazarite from birth. Which again, it's true that Jesus was "separated unto the service of the Father" but still Scripture never states specifically that he'd taken a Nazarite vow. We do know too though from the "12 year old in the temple" incident; that the continuing end result of that event was Jesus continued to "learn obedience". (Luke 2:40) So in the context of Jesus's relationship to the law between 12 years old and baptism; the completion of ending the "consecration" on the Day of Atonement does make sense too.

Here's where things get "fuzzy" because though we don't have much information on Jesus's pre-preaching life we do get a glimpse into where the Nazarite vow could "technically" apply in a statement Jesus makes (at the last supper) about he will not from that point on "drink of the fruit of the vine" until he does so "in the kingdom", or in his Father's kingdom. (He also uses the term "Kingdom of God".) We do know this was not "part of" an already existing Nazarite vow, because Jesus did drink the wine at the Passover. But did the Last supper / Passover commence some sort of "Nazarite vow" to be completed at His second coming?

Not sure (particularly in relation to fulfilling Old Testament laws); although a Nazarite vow was not "condemnable Old Testament law", because it was a totally voluntary action and not a commandment. Although it was connected to other Old Testament sacrificial duties; and thus (at least on earth) can't be performed outside of the Old Testament covenant, and thus was still part of the Old Testament law.

Although this does give an interesting context to Paul's "Nazarite vow incident" in Acts. Just as water baptism and communion are not "law" in the same venue Old Testament law was. There's no "standing to given an account" for believers who don't take communion, or who aren't water baptized. Interestingly though, there is a standing to give account for unbelievers who "don't discern the Lord's body". (1 Corinthians 11:29) So obviously there is a law aspect to that related to unbelievers. Those who are still under the law are condemned by it; for its purpose is to make sin known.

Assuming here also that "The Kingdom of God" is the inheritance of the entire Kingdom; not just the aspect of being born of the Spirit. Or in other words; the "Kingdom of God" in this context constitutes the recreated cosmos.

Now if this is a "Nazarite vow"? Did Jesus's "Nazarite vow" begin at Passover, to run till his return? I don't know; but there seems to be some "circumstantial evidence" of this possibility as in His current state of being; He doesn't touch any dead bodies, doesn't deal with wine or grape products and…. what about His hair?

God's… hair?

We have no description in Scripture other than in Revelation talking about Jesus's hair being white as wool. There's another of the "Ancient of Days" (Daniel 7:9) which comparing it to Daniel 7:13; this is assumed to be the Father. We do though have one interesting description in Isaiah 6:1 talking about God's "train" filling the temple.

Now I did look up that word and there's no linguistic evidence that it's connected to any Hebrew word used for hair. It's usually translated "hem" or "skirt" and basically means "that which hangs down". I also looked up "fill" the temple. No indication there though of anything that's "growing". "Skirts" in the sense of humanity though are to cover sin and obviously that's not a need of God's.

Now the implication of what "clothes" God is glory; and the word "fill" means to "satisfy", "accomplish", "consecrate", "overflow". Also though, we have hair being described in the context of being "provided as a covering" that is the "glory" of the woman.

Jesus came forth from the Father (conceived by the Spirit) as the "seed of Eve". He was born male as Adam was created in God's image and gender is an express need of the capacity for life to reproduce, because of the fall. (John 20: 34-36) Despite the fact that God is technically genderless. Thus all the members of the Godhead are described as male.

Although this parable does present an interesting juxtapose of whether or not taking on created material presence, is a form of manifest "feminine side" of God? After all, we do have "wisdom" (which is described of Christ) in the feminine. (Proverbs 1:20, 8:1, 9:1, Matthew 11:19, Luke 7:35)

So thus, is the "train" that fills the temple in Isaiah's description actually representative of "Nazarite hair". Obviously it's not a stretch to say it's representative of God's glory. But is that Christ's "proverbial Nazarite vow"? He's consecrated unto the service of the Divine plan until He sits upon His own throne in His own glory. That is theoretically possible seeing how the other aspects of the Nazarite vow "fit".

On the flip side of this question though; would there be an Old Testament ordinance "carried through" till the end of time related to God? It's possible, although it wouldn't be in the same context as to how the Old Testament law applies to unregenerate humanity. For example; Jesus is a high priest "after the order of Melchizedek". Which obviously is an application of a pre-atonement God manifest system, that we have no earthly information about.

So could this statement of Jesus's related to fruit of the vine in the Kingdom of God be a similar application? But like "high priest after the order of Melchizedek" there's no additional Scriptural information to explain to us what that means; other than Melchizedek was obviously some sort of theophonic figure.

Could there also have been a human real world political king named Melchizedek (who was an agent of God)? Just as the names Michael and Gabriel are theophoric names for Christ; despite that there also appears to be created angelic entities that bear these names. (I don't know?)

Fulfilled prophecy and the Second Coming:

So, putting this altogether? (Not sure I can at the moment?) If there is a correlation to Christ's return and events in the Bible; the clues would be in the New Testament; related to fulfilled prophecy; fulfilled in NT events. (Specifically I'm thinking the resurrection.)

If the resurrection commenced the millennial reign; or at least as it relates to Christ attaining all authority over the cosmos as related to the redemption of sinners; (which appears to be the case based on the end of Ephesians 1) The 2000 year end of that would be sundown before Easter (April 17th) 2033.

Contrast this to the "sealing" of Pentecost. We have a "time gap" in here; which I don't know what that "time gap" means in relation to the commencement of Judgement Day to the recreation of the cosmos. Scripture does tell us though that at the point Christ makes his entry in glory into this corrupt cosmos; the "counting of days" related to time is over.

Now other Bible passages talking about "coming as a thief in the night" and "he comes at an hour they (the wicked servants) are not expecting". Is the hour they are not expecting because they think it is correlated with Yom Kipper? (I asked that question in the last chapter.)

Paul connects "comes as a thief in the night" to the "great falling away" and the "man of sin having been revealed" "the son of perdition". Scripture names Judas as the "son of perdition". Now is this passage talking about the false Jewish religious system; because if it is, that would fit our current day too.

The son of perdition was "revealed" (to the disciples at least) before Jesus died. (Judas had hung himself.) Jesus does say that "of all You've given me, I've lost none but the son of perdition; that the Scripture might be fulfilled." That "fulfillment of Scripture" regarding the "son of perdition" has to be a reference to the book of Daniel.

Well, digging some more; I've found a few other pieces. (Some of these pieces I already knew were there.) The "8th king" is the beast system. The "mother of harlots" is apostate Judaism who rides this beast. The entity that controls the beast is Satan. The 10 kings have no kingdom at the point Revelation is complete. (There are 10 nations in Acts present at Pentecost.)

The mother of harlots is destroyed in "one hour". Now I've yet to determine if that's a literal hour or a metaphoric hour. I'm going to venture to guess it's a literal hour, because the nations of the world are so shocked at this occurrence that they have no time to recover before Judgement Day commences.

Is the last "human act" of destruction a nuclear attack on Jerusalem (be it intentional or accidental)? (I don't know.)

Now the kings (or kingdoms) who gave their power to this faulty Jewish system who turn on it in the end. (Are we seeing the commencement of that now?)

Russia, 1917 - 2010

Britain 1920's - ?

Germany 1945 - ?

US 1945 - ?

China - ?

Saudi Arabia - ?

France - ?

India - ?

Iran - ?

Palestine - ?

Not sure these nations are all connected to the kings / nations in Acts. The proxy influence is definitely there; but is that what any of this means? One could reasonably throw S. Korea and Japan in the the mix too, as they wield considerable economic influence.

China, Russia and India have basically dumped the US dollar and here's the power struggle. Does this become the turning point where we see the pitch forks come out? If the global famine turns into a wild fire that can't be controlled? Yeah; pitch forks would be coming out!

Not sure I'm ready for that!

Back to the son of perdition being Judas.

According to dispensational eschatology; there appears to come a "lawless one" (singular) on the "book end" of Judas. (2 Thessalonians 2:8) Assuming it will be some sort of messiah figure, appointed as such by Babylon the Mother of Harlots. Although Revelation says the beast itself is the "8th king".

A careful look at 2 Thessalonians 2 shows that all of what's singular related to "man of sin" or "son of perdition" is not future tense though. We only see future tense when we get to verse 8:

7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now lets will let, until he be taken out of the way.

("He who lets" is the Holy Spirit, until He "takes Himself" "out of the way". What exactly that constitutes; I don't know? Is that the end point of salvation / last day of the millennium; or even the point where the majority of the last of the elect left to the bitter end, have been "martyred" from the churches? I don't know, but that would make sense if that is the case.)

8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

(The "Wicked be revealed" is "revealed" (to all the cosmos) by the action of "shall destroy with the brightness of His coming".

Now "whom the Lord shall consume with the Spirit of His mouth"? Is that a specific precursor of the proclamation of the coming Judgement that is being proclaimed by God's people? I don't know if there's a "specific proclamation" / (revelation of Scriptural truth) connected to that? Although there are things going on that Scripture tells us are indicators of the imminent return of Christ. I'll get into some of what I found on that (related to the condition of the planet) in the next chapter.

The proclamation of coming Judgement throughout earth's history though, actually has always been part of God's proclamation of the redemption plan; regardless of what era that happened in. If we are talking Adam and Eve, the flood, Job, Moses, the incarnation / preaching of Christ, the atonement, and Pentecost to Judgement Day. The Lord consuming "the Wicked" with the "Spirit of His mouth" has always been connected to the proclamation of the Word of God; even prior to the point of Scripture being written down.)

9 Even him (not in the Greek text), whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,

Note in these 3 verses that "that Wicked be revealed" and "who's coming is after the working of Satan" are not singular entities. "Lawless (one)" or "(man of) lawlessness" (as is in some translations) is not in the text. (Also note 2 Thessalonians 1:6-8. The context of "them that trouble you" is plural.)

The reemergence of this political system without a specific king. Makes me wonder if the apostate Jews of the 1st century thought Judas was their messiah? (Interesting question; we've found no historical documents that convey if Judas was the "hope they hung their Yamahas on" or not.) Judas was a cleric; which fits in with "nephilim" / "men of renown" etc. being clerics connected to Satanic / demonic activity already having been eluded to in previous Scripture. (Numbers 16) (For more complete explanation of this: see Bible Study - Theory on Angels, Ghosts and Extra-Terrestrial Life - chapters 9 & 10)

Yet just as prophetic fulfillment cuts out connecting future events to OT feasts; will this be a gentile (goyim) political "messiah"?

Which brings me back to Trump?

Was part of the beast's impetus to get rid of Trump; (if he's actually never coming back?) "we don't want this man as our king"! The "temple institute" and Netanya-hoo-hoo who'd literally "coined" Trump as "the modern Cyrus". Could it be that because Trump refused to be put in that position that they got rid of him? Or his son-in-law - Kushner?

I know Trump was disgusted over the "Abrahamic peace accord". That was clear by the footage of his reaction to Netanyahu at its announcement. But it was also interesting that the people who wanted these events to unfold a certain way; weren't real enthusiastic about it either. (Curious? Compared to Saudi Arabia who presented a traditional sword dance which Trump participated.) Obviously they (all parties in the Middle East..even?) know, politically this is all a lie. And now with the dollar about to collapse; it appears the Zionists are likely "looking for their next lover".

Is this how China plays into this Russia / Ukraine / East / West conflict? I don't know, as it relates specifically to the unfolding of God's plan as we approach Judgement Day; but there are certainly earthly political connections there. And of course, there are no "real coincidences" in any of this.

This is where it gets interesting / (scary), because if it all comes crashing down; nothing is going to stop it. It's going to free fall; like the World Trade Center buildings.

Now it is possible that a nuke goes. (Not that I think Russia is looking to start a nuclear war; but don't push your luck NATO!) Very different environment though now, than say Desert Storm.

(2024 Update:)
Yet the "flip side" of this: (which again brings me back to Trump).

Does Trump actually become the fulfillment of this dispensational narrative? He certainly appeared to have been "on track" for being named as some pivotal character in that narrative. (The modern King Cyrus.) If Trump becomes the recognized US President in 2024; will that event (again) become part of this narrative; as "the peace maker" related to this current war in Gaza? And what will be the political outcome concerning that narrative and the "temple mount"?

I don't dismiss this as a possibility. Yet if that does come to pass; it will make for some continuously interesting political divides in this world. Will Hamas "mysteriously disappear" as Isis did when Trump became president in 2016?

Recently I encountered a YouTube video where the man being interviewed spoke of having been raised in "The Message"; which was primarily referred to as a religious cult fronted by a political agenda; (or rather was it a political cult fronted with a pentecostal "evangelical" religious agenda / movement) started by William Marvin Branham. This movement convergence was best known, at that time by the name "Latter Rain" which began in earnest in 1947.

Other politically orientated pentecostal movements had existed before this; but this was the first to make significant religious agenda based inroads into modern American politics. This group was primarily Zionistic / Schofield Reference Bible orientated; yet was actually just another tentacle of what I'd call the current "beast system". It ran along side of the Jewish Zionists, the Mormons and the Roman Catholic Church's political ambitions. The political movements that came out of this were: "America First Party" (1943), "Christian Nationalist's Party" (1948), "National State's Rights Party" (1960). But also influenced political organizations that grew more to not be definitively religious like the National Rifle Association.

Many of these political parties disappeared as we got into the late 70's and early 80's as the US became primarily a "two party" (really now a uni-party) system of "Democrats" and "Republicans". Today though we still see the political faction labels "communist", "socialist", "liberal", "green", "capitalist", "populists", "conservative", "evangelicals" (or "religious right") which have now been absorbed by Democrats and Republicans. And since the numbers of polarized groups have grown; the stated platforms of the two parties are further and further apart. Yet though on many levels, we are still dealing with uni-party politics.

The leaders of the early pentecostal movement though were overwhelmingly segregationist racist; as most followed a doctrinal teaching called "Anglo (or British) Israelism". Anglo-Israelism is the belief that the "British" people make up the lost tribes of Israel. (Britain is "Ephraim" and the US is "Manasseh".) They follow the doctrine of the "seed of the serpent"; which like unto the Talmudic Lilith folklore, is inherently racist against all who are not the "chosen" ethnicity. In Anglo-Israelism the "serpent seed" is anyone who's dark skinned. This ideology also had its secular branches in Social Darwinism. This belief (or some variant of it) is also central to KKK ideology. Thus there are a lot of connections between the KKK and early European descended pentecostal preachers.

Obviously though not all in the early pentecostal movement were segregationists; as the Azusa Street mission was always racially mixed. Today too, Americans in general have become accustom to people of all manner of ethnic backgrounds participating together in religious services; as well as "ecumenical" public events between differing religious groups. I have attended several interfaith events; as well as celebrations and holidays of non-Christian religious and cultural groups.

Although there are aspects of Anglo-Israelism that date back to the 16th century, the idea only really took hold in Britain starting in the 1880's and spread to the US by WWI. It runs historically parallel with Jewish political Zionism, of which also had it's adherence across Germanic populations too. Thus giving context to the racism of the National Socialists in Germany. Racism and segregation was not uncommon in the 1940's. Of which I'm sure similar tenants run in every other culture around the world; as human beings are inherently "tribalistic", even of those who are not ethnically so.

Interestingly though, finding this YouTube channel about William Branham's starting political movements connected to pentecostal beliefs, also rings true of my personal experience. Back in June of 2022; I attended a "Reawaken America tour"; expecting a political event much like a MAGA rally. (I've been to several political rallies over the decades.) What I found was an interesting combination of political rally and big tent revival with snippets of secular "fight songs" and patriotic music thrown in. I was a bit surprised at how "pentecostal flavored" this event was; but now knowing the roots of the history of religiously backed politics, I understand why.

So, seeing how the "beast system" sucks in all sorts of aspects of society; we'll see what happens in another 10 months.

"The Great Reset" piece of this:

I think Covid really "jumped the shark". And to try and stop the free fall; they displayed their obvious propensity for massive fraud and screwed the pooch on the 2020 election. (The French are now noticing the same thing with Macron and Le Pen.) The narrative coming unglued, is so obvious that the plebs are sharpening their pitchforks.

And they didn't accomplish what they'd intended because they lost control of the buggy and the Covid baby went over the cliff!

So, the fig leaves are coming unglued at the seams and it's obvious to the world that the pedophile emperor with dementia has no clothes. And I wouldn't doubt that there's some form of communication going on between Trump and Putin. (Possibly Xi and Trump too?)

Hold onto your hats folks; the next decade is going to be interesting!

On the final note of this chapter:

Perusing Bible passages, I noticed something interesting. In Revelation 11:18 it speaks of "…. and Thy wrath has come….. and should destroy them that destroy the earth."

Destroy (both "destroy them" and "destroy the earth") means to "corrupt". I think it's akin to how the recreated cosmos will be "incorruptible"; but the Lake of Fire will mean "continuous eternal corruption".

So does this mean that those who "corrupted the earth" infer an eternal form of this corruption upon themselves?

It's an interesting question that struck me in a certain way, given bio-lab pandemics and gene editing therapy disguised as "vaccines". At this point I'm fairly confident that there are several bio-engineered illnesses that have been unleashed on the planet and some of those manifest long before Covid. (HIV, Chronic Fatigue / Fibromyalgia, various H/N bird flus).

Now were these "cobbled together gene edited" such as Covid and the shots are; or are they more basically "whole" "minimal tampering" infectious agents? We know both HIV and Chronic Fatigue / Fibromyalgia have the same protein coat that has a US patent number on it. The patent was found by a random citizen digging through piles of declassified information. (They'd passed it on to the Gulf War Syndrome researchers who'd noticed the two viruses had the same protein coat. Was about year 1997 or so.) So, we know some of these agents are obviously the result of lab tampering.

The "irony" is that these modified genetic sequences are going to just continue to mutate and infect ultimately everything on this planet. In a very real way these "scientists" have "corrupted the earth" on a genetic level. And that is on top of "the earth wearing out like a garment". (Isaiah 50:9)

Thus the other "dispensational narrative caveat" is the question of mass extinction related to "vaccines" that edit genes and cause the down grading of the immune system. (If the "tribulation" isn't "cut short; no flesh would be"….. (left to) "save".)

Thus God destroys those who destroyed the earth!

Is the Lake of Fire full of its own eternal form of "Covid variants"? That statement sounds pretty silly on the surface; but think about the ominous implication related to eternal destruction!

And on that sobering subject… Next couple of chapters; I'm going to dive into Ezekiel 38 and 39.